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Reply | Forward Message #441 of 1285 |
Hey everyone,
 
I'm trying to figure out exactly what Galatians 1:10 means, and I'm hoping y'all can help me out.  Here's what it says in my KJV, compact e-sword version:
 
"For do I now persuade men, or God? Or do I seek to please men?  For if I yet pleased men, I should not be the servant of Christ."
 
Is Paul trying to say:
 
1)  I can't be an effective servant of Christ if I'm trying to please men?
 
or
 
2)  If I'm trying to please men, the last thing I would have done is to be a servant of Christ?
 
I'm leaning towards 2, but I don't have enough info to say that for sure.  Let me know what you think.  And if you think one or the other, let me know why you think so.
 
Thanks for helping an aging brother out!
 
 
Mark
 
"Pleasure is a poor substitute for excellence."
-unknown
Wed Jul 6, 2005 12:02 pm

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Forward 		Message #441 of 1285 |
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Hey everyone, I'm trying to figure out exactly what Galatians 1:10 means, and I'm hoping y'all can help me out. Here's what it says in my KJV, compact e-sword... 		Mark Enriquez
enriquezm20
Offline Send Email 		Jul 6, 2005
12:24 pm

Mark, I'm not entirely sure if I'm understanding your question correctly, but here's what I get out of it. Maybe the NIV might make it clearer, or maybe it...
celebok
Offline Send Email 		Jul 12, 2005
9:34 pm

Basically I was wondering what he was saying on the 2nd half of that verse, where he says, "If I were still trying to please men, I would not be a servant of...
Mark
enriquezm20
Offline Send Email 		Jul 13, 2005
1:19 am
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